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What Is Time? (Physics Continued)
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Post by
L33tsauce
Time is nothing more than a unit we measure with. that's all I use it for :)
It's also a delicious seasoning.
Post by
Artinz
Forgive me for not reading through seven pages of this stuf, and kind of like what bigfoot252 said, time is a unit made to measure the speed at which energy is expended, regardless of place.
Well... reading this over again I see the flaws in that. Diffusion takes "time" but expends no energy... so time is a unit made to measure the speed at which something is accomplished. Meh.
Post by
74218
This post was from a user who has deleted their account.
Post by
Aratheras
The universe is (supposedly) infinite.
The human race is quite finite in the majority of its aspects.
Finity ÷ Infinity = 0
Thus, I do not believe that humans can ever fully understand the universe. It's just my theory, of course.
Ehm, something is wrong in your math... You can't get 0 by dividing. No matter what you divide by... If you assume that finite can be any number and infinite is infinite, you will get a number, that is infinitely close to 0, when you divided finite by infinite. If you assume that finite is anything, and infinite is it's opposite (although this does not fit with the definitions, as I see them, at all), you will get 1 by dividing them.
Also it seems like a really weird way to put it. You're comparing the size of the universe to the traits of the human being.
Post by
109094
This post was from a user who has deleted their account.
Post by
Artinz
The universe is (supposedly) infinite.
The human race is quite finite in the majority of its aspects.
Finity ÷ Infinity = 0
Thus, I do not believe that humans can ever fully understand the universe. It's just my theory, of course.
Ehm, something is wrong in your math... You can't get 0 by dividing. No matter what you divide by... If you assume that finite can be any number and infinite is infinite, you will get a number, that is infinitely close to 0, when you divided finite by infinite. If you assume that finite is anything, and infinite is it's opposite (although this does not fit with the definitions, as I see them, at all), you will get 1 by dividing them.
Also it seems like a really weird way to put it. You're comparing the size of the universe to the traits of the human being.
Assuming that F (finite) = (-∞, 0)U(0, ∞), that equation is impossible.
Post by
307081
This post was from a user who has deleted their account.
Post by
Skyfire
The universe is (supposedly) infinite.
The human race is quite finite in the majority of its aspects.
Finity ÷ Infinity = 0
Thus, I do not believe that humans can ever fully understand the universe. It's just my theory, of course.
Ehm, something is wrong in your math... You can't get 0 by dividing. No matter what you divide by... If you assume that finite can be any number and infinite is infinite, you will get a number, that is infinitely close to 0, when you divided finite by infinite. If you assume that finite is anything, and infinite is it's opposite (although this does not fit with the definitions, as I see them, at all), you will get 1 by dividing them.
Also it seems like a really weird way to put it. You're comparing the size of the universe to the traits of the human being.
Assuming that F (finite) = (-∞, 0)U(0, ∞), that equation is impossible.
You guys didn't read my reply, did you?
Post by
123022
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Post by
MyTie
You guys didn't read my reply, did you?
And you are?
Ehm, something is wrong in your math... You can't get 0 by dividing. No matter what you divide by... If you assume that finite can be any number and infinite is infinite, you will get a number, that is infinitely close to 0, when you divided finite by infinite. If you assume that finite is anything, and infinite is it's opposite (although this does not fit with the definitions, as I see them, at all), you will get 1 by dividing them.
Also it seems like a really weird way to put it. You're comparing the size of the universe to the traits of the human being.
I love the way your mind works. Incredible logic, and expert communication skills. A+!
Post by
Skyfire
What reply?
Finity ÷ Infinity = 0
Incorrect. The
limit
of Finity
÷
Infinity = 0. Your product on the other hand is incomprehensible.
That one
.
And you are?
Your friendly neighborhood
Spiderman
Moderator
!
Post by
108385
This post was from a user who has deleted their account.
Post by
Skyfire
Time is what happens when man utilizes changes as a tool for progression.
Time exists when man doesn't.
Post by
MyTie
I'd like to start by saying hello, and welcome to this thread. It is quite fun. Now what it seems you're trying to do is give time a physical embodiment, even if its in the form of energy and or wavelengths.
And if that's the case, you should also try giving language a physical embodiment. I see what you are trying to say, but it is a very bad example. Language is not how an individual percieves it, but rather, how everyone who uses that language percieves it. It is a socicognitive tool, not some theoretical force in physics, like time is. So I think what i'm saying, language is what happens when man utilizes sounds as a tool for progression.
Time is what happens when man utilizes changes as a tool for progression.
By this rational, if I do not utilize it as a tool for progression, time would cease to be. If every human being were to die right now, we can safely assume time would not stop, even though human language would. Time is very independant of us.
This thread seems to be clogged with people who confuse time with the
perception
of time. We are speaking about the former, and trying to define it without relying on the latter.
Post by
Lusky
Hows about we let some
time
pass and let this thread die for christ sake.
Post by
307081
This post was from a user who has deleted their account.
Post by
MyTie
Boottspurr, trying to picture myself as that imaginary being is frying a few fuzes in my head.
Post by
307081
This post was from a user who has deleted their account.
Post by
Lusky
It's 18% right?
Post by
108385
This post was from a user who has deleted their account.
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