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Why must we kill our own kind?
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Post by
MyTie
Especially considering that no one can offer a definitive number of people killed by war either.
Exactly.
This is the last I say about this. You are making a claim that you CANNOT back up definitively, which sets you up for failure, no matter how believable your claim is.
Post by
Magician22773
You are making a claim that you CANNOT back up definitively
Yep.
And since no one can definitively back up the number of people killed in ANY war, then this
entire thread
has no merit at all. Since they cannot prove the
exact
number of people killed, then all claims of the horrors of war are pure conjecture.
Post by
MyTie
Seriously?
Post by
1069282
This post was from a user who has deleted their account.
Post by
Magician22773
You are making a claim that you CANNOT back up definitively, which sets you up for failure, no matter how believable your claim is.
Seriously?
What is even more perplexing is that your quote up there is pretty much the same thing that every atheist on this forum says about our faith as well.
Post by
Skreeran
/popcorn
Post by
Thror
And since no one can definitively back up the number of people killed in ANY war, then this
entire thread
has no merit at all. Since they cannot prove the
exact
number of people killed, then all claims of the horrors of war are pure conjecture.
What logical path has led you to the opinion that exact body counts are somehow related to the people's perception of wars?
Post by
322702
This post was from a user who has deleted their account.
Post by
Squishalot
@ Magician:
Suppose that abortion were to become illegal and the life of a fetus were recognised as a person. It is conceivable that a mother who drank alcohol and subsequently had a miscarriage could be up for charges of manslaughter / criminal negligence / other, for failing their duty of care to her unborn child. Do you feel that the scenario would be fair, just, morally right or equitable in any way?
Post by
Magician22773
@ Magician:
Suppose that abortion were to become illegal and the life of a fetus were recognised as a person. It is conceivable that a mother who drank alcohol and subsequently had a miscarriage could be up for charges of manslaughter / criminal negligence / other, for failing their duty of care to her unborn child. Do you feel that the scenario would be fair, just, morally right or equitable in any way?
If doctors can prove that the alcohol was the cause of death of the child, then why would it
not
be fair?
As the law stands, a mother that uses drugs during pregnancy can, and usually will, have their newborn child (which is often born addicted to meth or cocaine), removed from their custody almost immediately after birth by Child Protective Services.
The scenario you provided is only more difficult to prove intent, since alcohol is legal, and small amounts are generally deemed safe for the child. A court would have to both be able to prove that the mother knew she was drinking enough to potentially harm the child, and they would have to prove that no other causes existed for the miscarriage. If both of those were proven, then it should be no question that punishment is justified.
Why would it not be, under those circumstances?
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